Notwithstanding the Equal Pay Act of 1963, in 1993 it still appeared that men earned more than women in similar jobs. A random sample of 38 male machine-tool operators found a mean hourly wage of $11.38, and the sample standard deviation was $1.84. A random sample of 45 female machine-tool operators found their mean wage to be $8.42, and the sample standard deviation was $1.31. On the basis of these samples, is it reasonable to conclude (at α = 0.01) that the male operators are earning over $2.00 more per hour than the female operators?
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